Mr. Ghulam Rasool,
You say, “In Sudan, which is also home to a sizeable population of
the Sunni-Hanafi Muslims, the divorce law was reformed in 1935. According to
the Article 3, Shariah Circular No. 41/1935 of Sudan, all the divorces by a
husband are revocable except the third one and the divorce before the marriage
From this text, it appears there is no difference between Sudanese
Law and AIMPLB law. According to Sudan, after third pronouncement of divorce,
the divorce turns irrevocable; the same law does exist in India’s Muslim personal
Do you wanted to say more in your text? If yes, then please say it
Mr. Ghulam Rasool,
You have given very
short information about the amended laws of Muslim countries. Since the subject
is very vast, it needs explanation. Are these Muslim countries democratic? Do the citizens of these countries count three
talaqs as only one? Or the rulers of these countries have forcefully imposed
their own maslak upon the citizens. I find contradictions in the reformatory
process of these countries. All these major countries are not at platform of
one agreed idea. To what extent do they differ in their reformatory process? Do
all these countries count three talaqs as only one? To prove the pronouncement
of talaq, do the citizens of some of these countries not need two witnesses? If
two witnesses say the husband has given three talaqs, do the courts of these
countries still count three talaqs as only one? Should Indian Muslim laws follow
these major Muslim countries? Then, why in only counting three talaqs as only
one? Why not in all cases? Hundreds of questions are rolling in mind and i want
you to answer me
But first tell me about your own standpoint? Do you
too think three talaqs pronounced in one sitting as only one talaq?
You say, “Even the traditionalist Ulema who were vehemently
opposed to the amendments in the "Shariah of Talaq" are now happy to
consider three Talaqs in one sitting as only one”.
What do you mean by “traditionalist Ulema”? This word is common to
ulema of every sect of Muslim Ummah. Do traditionalist ulema of all the Muslim
sects count three talaqs as only one? Please explain it.
As far as i know, the history of counting three talaqs as only one
starts from the era of Ibn Taymiyyah followed by Ibn ul Qayyum. Ibn Taymiyyah
is the founder of counting three talaqs as one. Those who follow Ibn Taymiyyah
call themselves ghair-muqallid.
Do you want to refer to ghair-muqallid traditionalist ulema? Or more
than that? Please explain it.
You say, “Since the Shafae'e Madhab (school) is the most prevalent
in Egypt, if a husband says to his wife, "I Divorce you 100 times",
it will count as only one”.
This is very confusing. Could you please explain what you want to
say in this sentence?
As far as i know, according to the Shafaee Madhhab, three divorces
are counted as three. But have you got any newly created information about the
Shafaee Madhhab? Please explain.